Nephrology Multiple Choice Questions
1. Vascular manifestations of ADPKD include
A. Intracranial aneurysm
B. Coronary artery aneurysm
C. Thoracic aortic dissections
D. All of the above
2. HCV induced immune complex disease is associated with
A. Cryoglobulinemic proliferative Glomerulonephritis
C. Membranous glomerulopathy
D. All of the above
3. Fabry’s disease, all statements are true EXCEPT
A. Fabry’s disease neutral glycosphingolipids accumulate in lysosomes
B. Zebra bodies are a histologic hallmark
C. In Fabry’s disease angiokeratomas are most dense over the nape of the neck
D. The renal disease presents with hematuria and proteinuria
4. Stains used to enhance basement membrane structure in renal biopsy
A. Hematoxylin and eosin
C. Jones methenamine silver
D. Masson’s trichrome
5. Following improve the biocompatibility of a dialysis membrane.
A. More free hydroxyl groups on the membrane surface
B. Less free hydroxyl groups on the membrane surface
C. More free sulfhydryl groups on the membrane surface
D. Less free sulfhydryl groups on the membrane surface
6. Crescentic Glomerulonephritis is the histologic lesion in which of the following drug induced glomerulopathy ?
7. Gene defects associated with FSGS (Focal Segmental Glomerusclerosis).
C. Actinin 4
D. All of the above
8. Which of the following feature is not a part of Lithium nephrotoxicity ?
A. Nephrogenic DI
B. Incomplete distal RTA (Renal Tubular Acidosis)
D. Distal tubular microcysts
9. Which among the following is a selective antagonist of BAFF which is used as a novel therapy in IgA nephropathy ?
10. Which of the following study showed first demonstrated that overt diabetic nephropathy can be prevented in type 2 DM with microalbuminuria ?
A. BENEDICT trial
B. RENAAL trial
C. IDNT trial
D. IRMA-2 trial
11. Intestinal pathogenic E.coli implicated in HUS (Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome)
A. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli (EHEC)
B. Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC)
C. Enteroinvasive E.coli (EIEC)
D. Adherent invasive E.coli (AIEC)
12. Identify the wrong statement about Dialysis associated Amyloidosis.
A. Beta 2 Microglobulin is the amyloid precursor protein in dialysis associated amyloidosis
B. Eprodisate is the specific treatment for this condition
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome is often the first symptom
D. Renal transplant may lead to symptomatic improvement
13. Polymorphism of which gene is implicated in influencing the therapeutic drug levels of Tacrolimus ?
14. Approved systemic therapies for metastatic renal cancer are all EXCEPT
15. Gene mutations with causal links to FSGS (Focal Segmental Glomerulo Sclerosis)
D. All the above
16. Find the wrong statement about Hepatitis B Virus associated renal disease
A. Hepatitis B virus associated renal disease is more common in Hepatitis B carriers
B. Membranous nephropathy is the common renal lesion
C. Spontaneous resolution of HBV associated nephropathy is common in children
D. The glomerular lesions are immune-mediated
17. Which of the following pharmacotherapy is used as a urease inhibitor in infection-related stones ?
A. Boric acid
C. Acetohydroxamic acid
D. None of the above
18. All are conditions associated with Type B Lactic acidosis EXCEPT
B. Liver disease
C. Thiamine deficiency
D. CO poisoning
19. Classical hallmark of ATN on histological examination is
A. Patchy detachment and loss of tubular cells
B. Focal areas of proximal tubular dilatation along with distal tubular casts
C. Loss of apical brush border of PCTs (Proximal Convoluted Tubules)
D. Apoptosis of proximal and tubular cells
20. All of the following drugs can cause crystalluria EXCEPT
21. Which one of the following personality is generally regarded as the father of Nephrology ?
A. Richard Bright
B. Thomas Graham
C. William Kolf
D. Barry Brenner
22. Indications for parathyroidectomy in Chronic kidney disease is all EXCEPT
A. Persistent elevation of PTH more than 800 pg/ml in spite of aggressive treatment with calcimimetics and Vitamin D analogues
B. Uncontrolled hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
C. High levels of bone biomarkers (bone-specific ALP, TRAP5b)
D. Adynamic bone disease on bone biopsy
23. Ferroportin is an
A. Plasma Iron Transporter
B. Cellular Iron Exporter
C. Duodenal Iron Transporter
D. None of the above
24. Which of the following complement component is involved in opsonisation ?
25. Risk factor and triggering factors in nephrogenic systemic fibrosis caused by Gadolinium-based contrast agent in CKD are all EXCEPT
B. Peritoneal dialysis
C. High dose erythropoietin therapy
D. Elevated serum phosphorous
26. Combined liver-kidney transplantation is the best option for
A. Secondary hyperoxaluria
B. Secondary IgA Nephropathy
C. IgA Nephropathy
D. Primary Oxalosis
27. Which one of the following drug can be considered as therapeutic option in post-transplant Thrombotic Microangiopathy (TMA) ?
28. Which of the following is NOT true regarding alloantigen presentation to T-cells ?
A. T cells recognize alloantigen via direct or indirect pathways
B. Class II Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) molecules are recognized by CD4 T-cells
C. The MHC class I system is designed to present extracellular proteins taken up and processed by antigen presenting cells
D. T-cells recognize alloantigen as peptides presented by MHC molecules
29. Regarding post-transplant erythrocytosis, which of the following is false ?
A. Incidence appears to have decreased to less than 10% concomitant with the more frequent use of ACE inhibitors and ARBs
B. Spontaneous remission is observed in one-fourth of patients within 2 years
C. Treatment is generally recommended for a Hb level exceeding 17 to 18 g/dl or an Hct level over 51% to 52%
D. It generally affects those with poor allograft function
30. Regarding PTLD, which of the following is FALSE ?
A. It is the most common malignancy in post-transplant children
B. It occurs in 1-2% of patients after kidney transplant
C. Tacrolimus has a strong antiproliferative effect on PTLD derived B cell lines
D. Reduction or discontinuation of immunosuppressive therapy, particularly cyclosporine, tacrolimus or MMF, is the first line treatment
31. Kaplan-Meir method is used in a clinical trial for
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Risk analysis
C. Survival analysis
D. Cross over design data analysis
32. Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is computed based on
A. Odds ratio
B. Risk ratio
C. Relative risk reduction
D. Absolute risk reduction
33. Randomised clinical trial is a typical clinical trial of
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
34. In the amendment to the THOTA (Transplantation of Human Organ and Tissue Act) 1994, the THOTA Rules 2014, the following changes were introduced EXCEPT
A. Grandparents were also included are near relatives
B. Donor pledge form was included
C. The number of doctors for certifying brain death is reduced to two doctors from the previous rule of 4 doctors
D. An advisory committee was first defined
35. Which one of the following is a Neprilysyn inhibitor ?
36. Which among the following statements is FALSE regarding lymphocele ?
A. The source of pretransplant lymph leaks is the lymphatic channels around the iliac arterial system rather than the lymphatics of the transplanted kidney
B. The peak incidence is at 6 weeks
C. Many small lymphoceles are asymptomatic and will resolve spontaneously given enough time
D. Wound suction drains should not be removed postoperatively until less than 100 ml of fluid is produced on 2 consecutive days
37. Which among the following is NOT an absolute contraindication to renal transplantation ?
A. Active sepsis
B. Active drug dependence
C. Any medical condition with a severely shortened life expectancy (<1 to 2 years)
D. Positive B cell CDC (Compliment Dependant Cytotoxicity) crossmatch
38. The immunosupressive drug which blocks Interleukin 2 thereby preventing the proliferation of T-lymphocytes
39. All of the following mediate Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) via impaired Microvascular Hemodynamics EXCEPT
40. As per the transplantation of human organs and Tissues Act-1994 (India), Unrelated transplant can be done only with the approval of
A. Appropriate Authority
B. Competent Authority
C. Authorisation Committee
D. Head of the transplant center
41. Size of the urea molecule and creatinine molecule is
A. 50 Da and 100 Da, respectively
B. 60 Da and 113 Da, respectively
C. 70 Da and 123 Da, respectively
D. 80 Da and 132 Da respectively
42. All of the following are used in managing recurrent intradilytic hypotension EXCEPT
A. Sodium profiling
B. Warm dialysate
C. Intravenous saline
D. Avoid food intake during dialysis
43. Leucocyte esterase test, which indicates the presence of leucocytes in urine is present in all EXCEPT
44. Shape of urine crystals gives a clue to the chemical composition of urinary stones. Identify the wrong match from the following pair of crystal shape and chemical composition.
A. Coffin lid appearance-Calcium oxalate monohydrate
B. Envelope shaped-Calcium oxalate dehydrate
C. Rhomboid/flat diamond shaped-Uric acid crystals
D. Needles/Sheaves of wheat-Amoxycillin
45. GFR equations used to estimate GFR in paediatrics is
A. Cockroft Gault equation
B. Nankiwells equation
C. Schwartz equation
D. CKD-Epi formula
46. C3 nephritic factor is an autoantibody associated with
A. Type 1 MPGN
B. Type 2 MPGN
C. Type 3 MPGN
D. All the above
47. Electron microscopic findings characteristic of post-infectious Glomerulonephritis is
A. Subepithelial electron-dense deposits
B. Mesangial and capillary wall deposits
C. Mesangial and subendothelial deposits
D. Irregular, hump like deposits on top of Glomerular basement membrane
48. Essential criteria for diagnosing Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
A. Decreased effective serum osmolality (<270 mOsm/kg)
B. Urine osmolality >100 mOsm/kg
C. Urinary sodium>40 mmol/L
D. All the above
49. Which of the following statement on the pharmacokinetics of loop diuretics is false ?
A. Toresamide have lesser oral availability than furosemide
B. The elimination half-life of toresamide is more than Furosemide
C. Bumetanide has almost 100% bioavailability on oral administration
D. Long term use of diuretics can cause diuretic adaptation and resistance
50. Chinese herb nephropathy is due to
A. Glue sniffing
C. Fumaric acid
D. Aristolochic acid
51. Which of the following drug combinations is considered unacceptable or ineffective in treating Hypertension ?
A. Beta-blockers and central adrenergic agents (eg. clonidine)
B. Calcium channel blockers and thiazide diuretics
C. Calcium channel blockers and Beta-blockers
D. RAAS blockers and Calcium channel blockers
52. Identify the INCORRECT statement about the biomarkers in pre-eclampsia.
A. Placental Protein 13 (PP13) is involved in normal placentation
B. sFlt1 level is increased in severe pre-eclampsia
C. sFlt1 to PIGF (Placental Growth Factor) ratio can be used in risk stratification in women with suspected pre-eclampsia
D. Urinary levels of PIGF are significantly higher in women who develop pre-eclampsia
53. Mutation in the gene coding for 11 Beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase Type 2 will result in
A. Gordon syndrome
B. Liddle syndrome
C. Geller syndrome
D. Syndrome of Apparent Mineralocorticoid Excess (SAME)
54. Inorganic phosphate is almost exclusively reabsorbed in
A. Proximal tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Distal Tubule
D. Collecting duct
55. Which of the following statement about the characteristic of the dialyzer is NOT TRUE ?
A. KoA of the dialyzer describe its ability to clear solutes
B. High-efficiency dialyzers have high KoA
C. High flux dialyzers have low membrane permeability
D. Ultrafiltration coefficient (KuF) explains the ability of the dialyzer to remove water
56. The dialysis nurse wants to neutralize the excess dose of Heparin which he had accidentally given to the patient. What is the dose of Protamine required to neutralize 1000 IU of Heparin ?
A. 1 mg
B. 10 mg
C. 100 mg
D. 1000 mg
57. Which of the following is a FALSE statement about Peritoneal dialysis solutions ?
A. Bicarbonate is the most commonly used buffer in Peritoneal dialysis solutions
B. Skin rash is the most commonly reported adverse effect on the use of Icodextrin
C. Dextrose is the osmotic agent used in conventional Peritoneal dialysis solutions
D. Dual-chamber PD solutions have a low concentration of glucose degradation products
58. Identify the WRONG statement about calcium oxalate nephrolithiasis.
A. Primary hyperoxaluria results from hepatic enzyme deficiencies
B. Bariatric surgery is used as a treatment for enteric hyperoxaluria
C. Oxalobacter formigenes is used as probiotic therapy in oxalate nephrolithiasis
D. Increase dietary calcium does not necessarily increase the risk of stone formation
59. Renin-angiotensin aldosterone axis all statements about this are true EXCEPT
A. AT1 receptors are responsible for most of the functions of Rennin Angiotensin system
B. Use of ACE inhibitors during pregnancy has not been associated with congenital defects
C. Angiotensinogen is converted into Angiotensin 1 and 2 by Angiotensin-converting enzyme
D. Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone axis is required for normal renal development
60. Macula densa is the specialized region in the
A. Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)
B. Loop of Henle
C. Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)
D. Collecting duct
61. The most likely primary cause of an acquired form of Nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus is
A. Down regulation of Aquaporin 2 receptor (AQP2)
B. Mutations in Vasopressin receptor 2 (V2R)
C. Reduction in interstitial osmolality
D. Increased urine production
62. Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) is primarily synthesized in
A. Choroid plexus of ventricles
B. Cardiac ventricles
C. Atrial cardiomyocytes
D. Pericytes in the tubulointerstitial compartment
63. Following are the renal complications of Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs EXCEPT
A. Sodium retention and hypertension
B. Papillary necrosis
64. Barters syndrome is characterized by all EXCEPT
A. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Sodium wasting
65. In aminoglycoside nephrotoxicity following electrolyte disturbance is found
D. All of the above
66. Which of the following variable is NOT USED to estimate kidney function from Plasma Creatinine in four-variable MDRD (Modification of Diet in Renal Disease) equation ?
67. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE about Vasopressin ?
A. Synthesized in the posterior pituitary
B. Secretion is stimulated by an increase in serum osmolality
C. Acts on renal 𝑉2 receptor
D. Vasopressin analogues are used in the treatment of Hepatorenal syndrome
68. Mark the best response from the statement below on medication associated hyperkalemia.
A. Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus cause hyperkalemia by causing hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism
B. Amiloride cause hyperkalemia by inhibiting ENaC activity in distal nephron
C. Pentamidine block ENaC receptor
D. All the above statements are true
69. The drug of choice for treatment of ethylene glycol induced acidosis is
A. Intravenous saline administration
B. Intravenous Bicarbonate therapy
C. Intravenous Fomepizole
D. Intravenous Thiamine
70. Drug induced Distal RTA
A. Amphotericin B
D. All of the above
71. Which of the following statement about transplant immunosuppressive drugs is NOT TRUE ?
A. Cyclosporin binds to FK 506 binding protein in the cytoplasm and inhibits calcineurin
B. Tacrolimus is a macrolide antibiotic
C. Mycophenolate mofetil acts by inhibiting Inosine Monophosphate dehydrogenase
D. Sirolimus shares its cytoplasmic binding protein with Tacrolimus (FBP12)
72. Which one of the following is an inhibitor of vascular calcification in CKD ?
A. Protein S
C. Matrix metallprotein
73. Erythrocytosis in patients with CKD is seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A. Polycystic kidney disease
B. Chronic allograft Nephropathy
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Renal tumours
74. Which of the following statement IS TRUE regarding FGF 23 a key regulator in bone and mineral metabolism in CKD ?
A. Its chief action is to reduce phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule
B. FGF 23 retards the progression of CKD in diabetics and non-diabetics
C. Increased phosphate excretion is the stimuli for increase FGF 23 production
D. FGF 23 protects against the development of hyperparathyroidism
75. All of the following are side effects of Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (acetazolamide) use, EXCEPT
A. Increase the risk of nephrolithiasis
B. Precipitate encephalopathy in patients with liver failure
C. Symptomatic metabolic alkalosis
D. Decreased libido
76. Which among the following autoantibody is NOT associated with membranous nephropathy ?
A. Phospholipase A2 Receptor (PLA2R)
B. Thrombospondin tpe1 domain containing 7A (THSD7A)
C. Neutral Endopeptidase (NEP)
D. Soluble urokinase-type Plasminogen Activator Receptor (suPAR)
77. In tubuloglomerular feedback the correct statement about adenosine is
A. Vasoconstrictor mediator of the afferent arteriole
B. Vasodilatory effect on efferent arteriole
C. Adenosine acts through A2 receptors
D. Adenosine acts through purinergic receptors
78. The bulk of Magnesium (Mg) is reabsorbed in which part of the tubule ?
A. Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)
B. Thick Ascending limb of Loop of Henle (TAL)
C. Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)
D. Collecting Duct and Connecting Tubule (CD, CT)
79. Which of the following is known as “Phosphatonin” ?
80. Which among the following oral antidiabetic drug act by inhibiting renal tubular glucose absorption ?
81. Which among the following variants of FSGS, is particularly frequent in secondary forms of FSGS mediated by adaptive structural-functional responses ?
A. FSGS, not otherwise specified
B. FSGS, perihilar variant
C. FSGS, cellular variant
D. FSGS, collapsing variant
82. Which among the following statement is/are false ?
I. Familial IgA nephropathy may have a good prognosis.
II. Macrohematuria is a more common presentation than asymptomatic microscopic haematuria, especially in the Asian population.
III. It is more frequent in white people and Asians than in African Americans.
IV. Mesangial IgA deposits are also present in 4-16% of normal, healthy adults, living and cadaveric donors.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
83. Causes of linear staining on direct immunofluorescence of renal tissue includes
I. Anti-GBM disease
II. Older patients with hypertensive vascular disease
III. Fibrillary nephritis.
IV. Transplant biopsies.
A. I and IV
B. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
84. The primary goal of the 0 by 25 initiative of the International Society of Nephrology is
A. To promote kidney health in the age group of 0 years to 25 years
B. To decrease the incidence of AKI by 25% in developing world by 2025
C. To prevent avoidable deaths related to AKI by 2025
D. To be able to get 0 AKI cases in the developing world by 2025
85. Which of the following statements is false regarding Glomerulonephritis associated with Complement Disorders ?
A. Enhanced surface C3 activation underlies the pathogenesis of atypical Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome (aHUS)
B. Enhanced plasma C3 activation is typically seen in Dense Deposit Disease (DDD)
C. C3 Nephritic Factor (C3NeF) is present in the majority of patients C3 glomerulonephritis and approximately 50% of patients with DDD
D. Up to 80% of patients with DDD and up to half of the patients with C3GN have low levels of serum C3
86. All are markers of AKI (Acute Kidney Injury) EXCEPT
A. Urinary KIM-1
C. Urinary IL-18
D. Urinary MCP-1
87. According to KDIGO classification system albuminuria Stage A2 is characterized by
A. Urine albumin to creatinine ratio <30 mg per gram of creatinine
B. Urine albumin to creatinine ratio <30 mg per mg of creatinine
C. Urine albumin to creatinine ratio 30-300 mg per gram of creatinine
D. Urine albumin to creatinine ratio 30-300 mg per mg of creatinine
88. In classification of Diabetic kidney disease by histology, Stage 3 is characterized by
A. Mild mesangial expansion
B. Severe mesangial expansion
C. Nodular sclerosis (Kimmelsteil-Wilson Lesion)
D. Advanced glomerulosclerosis
89. Which of the following parasite localizes in the bladder wall ?
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Schistosoma hematobium
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. All of the above
90. Quantitative counts of bacteria in the suprapubic aspiration specimen of urine for microbiologic diagnosis of Urinary tract infection in patients not receiving antimicrobial therapy is
A. More than 102
B. More than 103
C. More than 105
D. Any growth
91. Patiromer a cation exchange polymer is used in managing
92. Which of the following gene defect is seen in Type 3 Bartter’s syndrome ?
A. Sodium, Potassium chloride co transporter (NKCC)
B. Potassium channel (ROMK)
C. Calcium sensing receptor (CaSR)
D. Chloride channel (CIC-Kb)
93. Streptococcal antigens implicated in the pathogenesis of post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
A. Streptococcal Pyrogenic Exotoxin B (SPEB)
B. Nephritis Associated Plasmin receptor (NAPlr)
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
94. Which one among the following Leptospira species are not pathogenic in human ?
A. Leptospira interrogans
B. Leptospira icterohemorrhagiae
C. Leptospira canicola
D. Leptospira biflexa
95. Quartan malarial nephropathy is caused by chronic or repeated infections by
A. P. Falciparum
B. P. Vivax
C. P. Malariae
D. P. Ovale
96. Which cause of nephrotic syndrome have highest incidence of renal vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism and deep vein thrombosis ?
A. Minimal change disease
C. Membranous Glomerulonephritis
D. Diabetic nephropathy
97. The most common cause of medullary nephrocalcinosis is
B. Hypervitaminosis D
C. Primary hyperparathyroidism
D. Renal tubular acidosis
98. Autoantibodies strongly associated with scleroderma renal disease
C. Anti-Jo-1 antibody
D. Anti-RNA polymerase 3
99. Gitelman’s syndrome distinguished from Bartter’s syndrome by
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Elevated renin and aldosterone levels
D. Hypomagnesemia and hypocalcuria
100. Inherited renal tubular disorder characterized by persistent isolated glycosuria in the absence of hyperglycaemia is due to a mutation in
Nephrology Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download
Concerning the measurement of renal plasma flow (RPF) and glomerular filtration rate(GFR): A. inulin is a good GFR marker because it is freely filtered in the glomeruli and it is not reabsorbed, or secreted, by the renal tubules. B. inulin concentration in the proximal tubule’s lumen increases progressively as water is reabsorbed in the segment of the nephron. C. PAH (para-amino-hippuric acid)is a good marker of renal plasma flow because it is freely filtered and is rapidly secreted by the proximal tubule; as a result very little PAH reaches the renal vein. D. A and C are correct. E. all are correct. Concerning water reabsorption by the proximal tubule: A. main driving forces for water reabsorption in the proximal tubule are solute uptake and oncotic pressure in peritubular capillaries. B. a significant amount of water uptake in the proximal tubule is dependent on sodium uptake by the Na/H antiports present in their luminal membrane. C. aquaporine-I (water channels) are abundantly present in the cellular membranes of proximal tubule cells. D. A and C are correct. E. all are correct. Concerning the macula densa: A. the macula densa senses the total amount of sodium chloride (sodium chloride concentration times volume) of tubular urine being delivered by the loop of Henle into the distal convoluted tubule. B. if the delivery of sodium chloride is lower than normal the macula densa signals the afferent arteriole (pre-glomerular) to release renin. C. renin release causes intravascular angiotensin formation and indirectly aldosterone release. D. A and C are correct. E. all are correct. Concerning angiotensin II: A. the exocrine renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system includes angiotensinogen production by the liver, renin secretion by the juxtaglomerular apparatus and angiotensin-converting enzyme present at the luminal surface of endothelial cells. B. aldosterone, but not AII, stimulate thirst and salt appetite. C. angiotensin II induces marked increases in sodium reabsorption by the loop of Henle and the collecting duct. D. A and C are correct. E. all are correct. Intravenous administration of 1.5 liters of isotonic Ringer’s solution to a healthy adult could cause: A. increased cardiac output and renal blood flow. B. increased GFR. C. increased atrial natriuretic peptide and decreased renin in plasma. D. A and C are correct. E. all are correct
Electronic Portal Imaging Device (EPID) in radiotherapy is used for A.. Radiation reactions in head and neck radiation include all EXCEPT A. Mucositis. B.. Total external beam radiation dose given in the treatment of cancer cervix stage III is A.. In which projection, is the central ray incident on the position aspect and emerges from the anterior aspect of the body ?. Superficial X-ray therapy include X-rays of potentials ranging from A.. In Cobalt-60 machine, which ray is used for external beam radiotherapy ?. Contrast is more with screen film combination than direct X-ray exposure because A. X-ray to light conversion efficiency is more. B. X-ray absorption efficiency is more. C. Screen is more sensitive to high energy radiation. D. Screen is more sensitive to low energy radiation. Which interaction of X-rays is the basis of radiographic contrast between bone and soft tissues ?. The name of invisible image formed as a result of exposure to radiation which later becomes visible during photographic development A.. Photographic image. C. Fog. D. Fixing. Which of the following layers of the film contain silver halide crystals ?. 57. is a tissue equivalent material placed close to skin surface.. The X-ray tube has certain special design features, including a beryllium window and a molybdenum target. C. Focal spot is very large. D. The tube filter is 0.03 mm of molybdenum or 0.5 aluminium equivalent to absorb X-rays below the optimum Kvp range
Which disorder may be caused by insufficient water intake, insufficient sodium excretion due to hormone imbalance, renal failure, corticosteroids, increased water loss due to fever, hyperventilation, increased metabolism, and dehydration due to sweating, vomiting or diarrhea?. You monitor his signs and symptoms typical of metabolic acidosis which include: Hypotension, altered heart rate, elevated respiratory rate, and muscle weakness. Hypertension, tachycardia, slowed respiratory rate and muscle spasms Elevated blood pressure, bradycardia, elevated respiratory rate, and muscle twitching. Hypotension, hypoxia, irritability and parenthesis. International normalized ratio (INR). Red blood cell count (RBC)Partial thromboplastin time (PIT). White blood cell count (WBC). Prothrombin time (PT). Which disorder has the following signs and symptoms: irritability; parenthesis of lips and extremities; muscle spasm and cramping; intermittent painful tonic spasms; abdominal pain due to muscle cell cramping; seizures due to irritation of nervous system tissue; and cardiac arrhythmias?. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)Prothrombin time(PT). White blood cell count (WBC). International normalized ratio (INR). Red blood cell count (RBC). Red blood cell count (RBC). Prothrombin time (PT)Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). International normalized ratio (INR). White blood cell count (WBC)
Paralysis in adult pigs. c. Photophobia in adult pigs. d. Incoordination in adult pigs. 28 days. c. 32 days. d. 35 days. 2 days. c. 60 days. d. 70 days. Bones, Fat, CNS, Muscles. c. CNS, Bones, Muscles, Fat. d. Fat, Bones, CNS, Muscles. a. Co deficiency. b. Cu deficiency. c. Mn deficiency. d. Zn deficiency. Mulberry heart disease in pigs is due to the deficiency of the vitamin. High frequency second heart sound. c. Low frequency first heart sound. d. High frequency first heart sound
Answer: B.reject a true null hypothesis. Answer: A.The variance of the errors is not constant. Answer: D.Take logarithems of each of the variables. Answer: B.Drop variables that cause multicollinearity in the first place. The regression coefficient estimated in the presence of autocorrelation in the sample data are NOT A. Unbiased estimators. Proportion of the variation in the dependent variable Y is explained by the independent variable X. Proportion of the variation in the dependent variable X is explained by the independent variable Y. Answer: A.Proportion of the variation in the dependent variable Y is explained by the independent variable X. Answer: A.Best Linear Unbiased Estimator. Answer: D.Cross-section data. Answer: A.Cross-section data. Scaling a dependent variable in log form in the log-lin model will———— A. change both the intercept and slope. Homogeneity of three or more population correlation coefficients can be tested by A. F-test. Answer: B.Binomial distribution
Madreporite plate is found in. The crust consisting of lower Gabbroic composition overlain by the Granitic composition is found. The discontinuity between outer core and inner core is known as. Earliest life on planet earth belongs to. Old age fossils deposited in the younger age rocks are called. A volcano which has stopped eruption over a long period is known as. The lithospheric plates slide past one another and that the plates neither gain nor lose surface areas are called. The normal magnetic polarity epoch older to Matuyama Reverse and younger to Gilbert Reverse is known as. d. There is no such Normal Epoch and Gilbert Reverse directly passes to Matuyama Reverse. Where, F = number of faces, V = number of vertices and E = number of edges
Tort means a civil wrong which is not exclusively a breach of contract or breach of trust.. 4. Who said, “Tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by the law, this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages”?. B. tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by the law towards the persons generally and its breach is redressible by an action for unliquidated damages. 15. Who among the following holds that there is no law of tort but there is Law of Torts ?. The main supporter of the theory that it is a law of Tort and ‘not law of Torts is
According to Unani system of medicine, human body is made up of. In siddha system of medicine sense organs are known as…………... According to Unani system of medicine there are…………temperaments. In Unani system of medicine, treatment is base. In Unani system of medicine, treatment can be done by. C. Unani system of medicine. C. Unani system of medicine. D. Indian system of medicine
The process of questionnaire design is called the schedule (True/False) Answer: False. Answer: 1.645. Answer: Research. A formal document that presents the research objectives, design of achieving these objectives, and the expected outcomes/deliverables of the study is called. (a) Research design. (b) Research proposal. (c) Research hypothesis. (d) Research report Answer: (b) Research proposal. Answer: After. Researcher design is the same as the research method.
1 :Hemolysed sample. 2 : Serum sample. 3 : Whole blood with heparin. 4 : Arterial blood Answer: 1. Hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary does not include ____________. 1 : Thyroid stimulating hormone. 2 :Parathormone. 3 :Adrenocortico tropic releasing hormone. 4 : Gonadotropin releasing hormone Answer: 3,4. This Question is “Multiple answer key”.. 1 : Urine. 2 : Blood. 3 : Urine and Blood. 4 : None of the above Answer: 3. The incubation period for the hepatitis B virus within the body is ________. 1 : 45 to 180 days. 2 : 20 to 30 days. 3 : 10 to 20 days. 4 : 30 to 80 days Answer: 1. 1 : Fasting blood glucose. 2 : Blood urea. 3 : One-hour blood glucose. 4 : Urine reducing sugar Answer: 2. Un-iced blood samples taken for blood gas analysis should be analysed within: 1 : 1 hour. 2 : 30 minutes. 3 : 2 hours. 4 : 45 minutes Answer: 2. Answer: B. 122.. Answer: B. 123.. 6-9mm. C. <5mm D. >20mm Answer: A. 7.2. C. 7.4. D. 8 Answer: A. 28. C. 21. D. 25 Answer: A. A. Benzidine test. B. Fouchet’s test. C. Ehrlich’s test. D. Hays test Answer: D. `I_g` D. C. `I_g` G. D. `I_g` A Answer: D. 3 : 2. C. 1 : 4. D. 2 : 1 Answer: B. Incomplete antibodies are detected using. A. Electrophoresis. B. Coombs test. C. Agglutination test. D. VDRL test Answer: B
(1) Renal ultrasonography should be the first step in the evaluation of RAS because a finding of symmetrical kidneys precludes the need for further testing.. A 32-year-old man was seen in the nephrology clinic with proteinuria.. On examination, he was overweight (BMI : 30 kg/m2), BP was 146/84 mmHg, and edema was present to midcalf level bilaterally.. A 28-year-old man was found to have protein 2+ on a routine urinalysis during a life insurance medical.. (1) Should have a renal biopsy to find out the cause of his proteinuria.. A new term Acute kidney disease (AKD) was proposed to include all cases of AKI of <3 month duration, to differentiate them from incident CKD.. (4) The disease is more like anti- GBM disease.. (2) Dose requirements of epoetin are generally 20% to 30% less when the agent is administered subcutaneously compared with intravenously.
Which Mediterranean island is considered an independent Asian country?. Of which country is Beirut the capital?. China claims on an independent island country as one of its provinces.. Which countries border the sea of Galilee?. The U.A.E separates two parts of a country.. Which country?. This country considers the Yalu as its most navigable river.. Which country?. This Gulf country is an island.. Which country?. Pakistan has borders with two countries of Asia.. Which country?